> Vocabulary is not very indicative as these can easily be loanwords. As in my other sibling (cousin?) comment consider basic articles and fundamental verbs.
I understand where you come from. Even if I consider the "linguistic relationship" vs "loanwords" argument as a fact explain to me how Vedic literature got integrated into Sangam literature (I ask this because the context of this discussion is "Aryan Invasion theory")? How is it that the Sangam literature extols Lord Vishnu as "the supreme deity who is the inner controller of the entire universe" if the concepts of Vishnu were Aryan of origin? If there was a clear division between the "Aryan invaders" and the "Dravidian natives" why is it that there is no mention of any such strife in the Vedas/Puranas or even in the Sangam literature (which is considered the oldest literature by the Tamilians)? Also, why does the Sangam literature have Vedic/Puranic stories (stories of Kartikeya, Vishnu, Shiva etc) if the civilizations are so distinct (and supposedly in strife during that period)?
I understand where you come from. Even if I consider the "linguistic relationship" vs "loanwords" argument as a fact explain to me how Vedic literature got integrated into Sangam literature (I ask this because the context of this discussion is "Aryan Invasion theory")? How is it that the Sangam literature extols Lord Vishnu as "the supreme deity who is the inner controller of the entire universe" if the concepts of Vishnu were Aryan of origin? If there was a clear division between the "Aryan invaders" and the "Dravidian natives" why is it that there is no mention of any such strife in the Vedas/Puranas or even in the Sangam literature (which is considered the oldest literature by the Tamilians)? Also, why does the Sangam literature have Vedic/Puranic stories (stories of Kartikeya, Vishnu, Shiva etc) if the civilizations are so distinct (and supposedly in strife during that period)?