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Interesting. So, if women entered the workforce in greater numbers after 1970, and the median wage for women was lower, wouldn't that drag down the median for all workers? That is, if you took a population of the same percentage of women workers as you had in 1970, what would happen to the median wage in 2017?

Note well: This is not a plea for keeping women out of the workforce, or even out of the statistics. This is not an excuse for paying women less than men. This is merely noting that, in one respect, the comparison of 2017 to 1970 is not apples to apples.



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