> But the decline in the labour share has been much more pronounced in the US than in other industrialised economies which are arguably similarly exposed to globalisation and technological change
The US happens to have a huge population speaking the same language and dealing with roughly the same regulations, so the economies of scale are even better. But, as the article says, labor everywhere faces the same risks.
If compared to European countries the US has higher wages generally, is it possible this effect is due to wages in those economies being at or near the wage floor already?
