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The problem with being the good guys is that it's hard to win against guerilla warfare on foreign soil without being evil.

The Malay insurgence seemed to be beaten fairly well.

Why didn't the Allied occupation of Europe in WWI and WWII suffer from guerilla warfare?

Which Allied occupation of Europe would that have been? In WW2, everyone wanted the Nazi's out, plus there was the immediate threat of Russian invasion in most areas.

In WW1 the allies didn't deploy major forces in Axis countries for any significant period of time.

Additionally there were pretty significant numbers of fighting-age men killed prior to the end of WW1 & WW2. That left less potential guerilla fighters.

Is the culture of Europe such that Europeans don't do guerilla war?

One of the first large scale examples of semi-organised guerilla war was the Peninsular War, where Spain and Portugal (and later the British) forced Napoleon's French forces out of the Iberian Peninsula.

The name "guerilla war" comes from the Spainish use of it during that war.

Also, see guerilla resistance movements in France, Poland and the Balkans during WW2.

I'm assuming the occupation of Japan went well because of the shock of being nuked and the surrender of the Emporer

That, and the lack of potential fighters, and the fact the Allies pretty much kept the Japanese power structures as they were during the war (they were too worried about the Russians to change anything). The Japanese didn't have anything to rebel against.



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